Now, does it fulfil the requirements to the P's for it to be defamation/slander?
I dunno, do you think it does?
It fits the formula you gave, but I think it would be incredibly difficult to establish if that was defamation/slander, personally.
I qualified that P needs to be such that it is injurious to the reputation of said concept of God.
OK, I think I see. I was getting stuck on the proving falsehood point on defamation/slander - as with a God you can't see, proof is going to be hard to come across either way. But by saying "the Christian concept of God is" rather than "God is" there's also the implication of "Christians worship this God" which is demonstrably provable.
(You could say God is an elephant and it can't be disproved, but if you said Christians worship an elephant that could be disproved).
Exactly. If you were on the other hand referring to Hindus, you might be kind'a right. Ganesha can be understood to be an elephant - at least in part, after all.
If you don't seek to educate yourself what the Christian perpective is, but insist that your interpretation of the bible shows clearly that God is P, therfore the Christian God must be P, as there can't be another interpretation of the bible... well...
Ok, but lots of people are wilfully ignorant - not just about religion! And there's people all over the internet insisting there can't possibly be any other interpretation than theirs (and that is the main reason that people are WRONG on the internet). But does that make it slander or defamation?
(I realize that sounds a lot like I'm saying 'ignorance is an excuse' which isn't what I'm trying to get at - I'm trying to get at how you'd establish it was specifically slander/defamation rather than ignorance).
"The Christian idea of God is misogynistic and patriarchal." and Christian X said: "That's not true, that's slander!" And you respond with: "Well, what I meant is, I think 'The Christian idea of God is misogynistic and patriarchal.', for reasons a, b, c." than it is clear that you didn't intend to defame the Christian concept of God.
Sure, and having reasons and an argument is going to counter the 'unfounded' part of slander/defamation. That makes sense to me.
On the other hand, if you say: "No, that's the truth and you're dumb for not seeing that!" It's quite clear that your intentions are not benign at all.
Is it? A lot of people genuinely believe they are right and others are dumb for not agreeing with them - and can't seem to back up their views or feel the need to. I get how not having an argument covers unfounded, but not bad intentions in necessarily meaning they're deliberately misrepresenting someone's beliefs to damage their reputation.
I think there are mainly three criteria which have to be fulfilled to speak of defamation (which are the same for defamation of world views as for persons, thus I copy/pasta'd the following together from
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Defamation and
http://www.nolo.com/legal-encyclopedia/defamation-law-made-simple-29718.html):
"Published" means that a third party heard or saw the statement -- that is, someone other than the person who made the statement or the person the statement was about. "Published" doesn't necessarily mean that the statement was printed in a book -- it just needs to have been made public through television, radio, speeches, gossip, or even loud conversation. Of course, it could also have been written in magazines, books, newspapers, leaflets, or on picket signs.
"False" means simply that the statement needs to be false and is kind of a prerequisite for the statement to be considered injurious, in so far as it means that it neeeds to be the statement that is injurious and not the fact it describes. Even terribly mean or disparaging things are not defamatory if the shoe fits. Most opinions don't count as defamation because they can't be proved to be objectively false. For instance, when a reviewer says, "That was the worst book I've read all year," she's not defaming the author, because the statement can't be proven to be false.
The statement must be "injurious." Since the whole point of defamation law is to take care of injuries to reputation, those suing for defamation must show how their reputations were hurt by the false statement -- for example, the person lost work; was shunned by neighbors, friends, or family members; or was harassed by the press.
Now, how about the cases we spoke about, where someone unkowingly makes a wrong statement? Or where a third party is there, that doesn't care for what is said in the defamatory statement or believes what is said in it anyway?
Statements made in good faith and reasonable belief that they were true, that is without "actual malice", are generally treated the same as true statements; however, this depends on:
- the reasonableness of the belief. The degree of care expected will vary with the nature of the defendant: an ordinary person might safely rely on a single newspaper report, while the newspaper would be expected to carefully check multiple sources. He should not have reason to doubt the truth of the statement given the statement itself.
- the statement was made in good faith. That is, the person who made the statement did not know it wasn't true and didn't neglect his obligation to be reasonably sure about the truth of the statement. Good faith and reasonable belief can't be claimed by someone who didn't care whether what he said was true or not and was reckless with the truth - for example, when someone has doubts about the truth of a statement but does not bother to check further before publishing it.
Also
innocent dissemination is a defense available when a defendant had no actual knowledge of the defamatory statement or no reason to believe the statement was defamatory.
The defense can be defeated if the lack of knowledge was due to negligence. Thus, a delivery service cannot be held liable for delivering a sealed defamatory letter.
And lastly, of course defamation depends on the possibility of injury: If there is third-party communication, but the third-party hearing the defamatory statement does not believe the statement, or does not care, then there is no injury, and therefore, no recourse.
I don't think it suffices that the offendant didn't intend injury: If someone thinks that "The Christian God is P" and issues that statement publicly*, thus injuring the reputation of that concept and thus indirectly all Christians in their right to freedom of belief, he can't clam that he didn't know that there would be an injury or that his intent was only to wake the Christians from what he holds to be delusions.
If his belief "The Christian God is P" is injurious and false and there would have been reason to doubt his belief but he didn't or he neglected his responsibility to inform himself about whether his belief was true or not, should be held accountable for defamation regardless of whether he held his belief to be true or not.
The same is true for the case of Father Eustathios Kollas. His intentions might be bening (he might really think what he's saying is true and he might want to safe if not the practitioners of Hellenismos then at least others from falling to what he deems to be a terrible mistake), but he is arguably still defaming those people that practice Hellenismos and the world view in itself.
It's a general problem with laws though that they are general rules, that need to be fitted on individual cases. That's what the judges and courts are there for, no?
Absolutely.
Though this perhaps seems more nebulous and subjective than most laws to me though, tbh. Stuff people say, unless obviously abusive, seems by definition open to interpretation. vov
I think that is quite the optimistic outlook on laws.
* P.S.: And issues it as stating a fact rather than his belief